, , , Entrance question model | HOMEOTODAY


Q1) In deltoid paralysis which nerve is involved?
         a)      Circumflex nerve
         b)      Musculocutanoeus nerve
         c)       Axillary nerve
         d)      Radial nerve

Q2) Ca prostate commonly occurs in the ______ lobe
a)      Anterior
b)      Posterior
c)      Lateral
d)      Medial
Q3) Length of male adult urethra is
a)      20 cm
b)      10 cm
c)       4 cm
d)      15 cm

Q4) Horner syndrome is produced due to  pressure on
a)      Stellate ganglion
b)      Spinal cord
c)       Parasympathetic ganglion
d)      Celiac ganglion

Q5) Rupture of supraspinatus manifest as
a)      Painful movements
b)      Difficulty in initiation of abduction
c)      Difficult abduction after 90 degree
d)      Flat shoulder

Q6) Function of thalamus is
         a) Relay centre
         b) Arousal
        c) Pain perception
        d) Pain localization

Q7) The receptors of pain is
a)      Ruffini organs
b)      Meckel bodies
c)       Golgi bodies
d)      Free nerve endings

Q8) Which structure in the eye is pain sensitive
a)      Iris
b)      Choroid
c)      Ciliary body
d)      All

Q9) One of the following is function of hypothalamus-
a)      Swallowing
b)      Vomiting
c)       Respiration
d)      Homoeostasis of temp

Q10) The fourth heart sound is caused by
a)      Closure of aortic and pulmonary orifices
b)      Vibrations of ventricular valve during systole
c)       Biventricular filling
d)      Closure of mitral and tricuspid orifices

Q11) Each kidney contains about _____ nephrons
a)      1 million’
b)      2 million
c)      4 million
d)      Half million

Q12) Brain fingerprinting
a)      Used as lie detector
b)      Used by EEG on lead
c)       Used for quantitative measurement for sulci and gyri
d)      Used by DNA

Q13) Highest concentration of vitamin c in the body is found in the
a)      Liver
b)      Kidney
c)       Adrenal cortex
d)      Spleen

Q14) Normal value of BUN
a)      20-40 mg/dl
b)      40-60 mg/dl
c)       8-16 mg/dl
d)      10-20 mg/dl

Q15) The activities of all the following enzymes are increased in starvation except
a)      Pyruvate kinase
b)      Pyruvate carboxylase
c)       Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase
d)      Glucose 6 phosphatase

Q16) Hidraadenitis suppurativa is found in
      a) Sebaceous glands
      b) Hair follicles
      c) Eccrine glands
      d) Apocrine glands

Q17) Alkaline phosphatase levels are elevated in all the following except
a)      Brain tumors
b)      Obstructive jaundice
c)      Bone tumors
d)      Placental tumors

Q18) Rickets is due to
a)      Loss of calcium in urine
b)      Increased mobilization of calcium from bone
c)       Decreased absorption of calcium
d)      Loss of phosphate in urine

Q19) Complications of bronchiectasis are all except
a)      Septicemia
b)      Ca bronchus
c)       Lung abscess
d)      Cerebral abscess

Q20) The endocrinal disorders associated with generalized lymphadenopathy is
a)      Hyperthyroidism
b)      Addison disease
c)       Cushing syndrome
d)      Carcinoid syndrome

Q21) Skin cancer which occur due to exposure of light is
a)      Melanoma
b)      Squamous cell carcinoma
c)       Kaposis sarcoma
d)      None

Q22) Most common opportunistic infection in AIDS in india
a)      Toxoplasmosis
b)      Cryptococcosis
c)       Cryptosporidiosis
d)      Tuberculosis

Q23) Culture media for fungus is
a)      Tellurite medium
b)      NNN medium
c)       Chocolate agar medium
d)      Sabourads medium

Q24) All are seen in cyst of entamoeba histloytica except
a)      Glycogen mass
b)      Cromidial bars
c)       Eccentric nucleus
d)      Refractile nucleus

Q25) Winterbottoms sign in sleeping sickness refres to
a)      Unilateral conjunctivitis
b)      Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
c)       Narcolepsy
d)      Transient erythema

Q26) The cycle of malarial parasite is the sequence of
1)      Exoerythrocytic stage
2)      Gametocytic stage
3)      Erythrocytic stage
4)      Sporogony

a)      1234
b)      1324
c)       1423
d)      1432

Q27) Opium poisoning produces ______ types of respiration
a)      Rapid and shallow
b)      Rapid and deep
c)       Shallow
d)      Diaphragmatic

Q28) Almond like bitter smell is positive in
a)      Chloral hydrate poisoning
b)      Hydrocyanic acid
c)       Hydrocyanic poisoning
d)      Oleander poisoning

Q29) Which of the following is used in forgeries as an ink removal solution
a)      Sulphuric acid
b)      Nitric acid
c)      Carbolic acid
d)      Oxalic acid

Q30) All of the following causes constriction of pupil except
a)      Dhatura
b)      Morphine
c)       Organophosphorus poisoning
d)      Pontine haemorrhage

Q31) Govannetti diet is used in
a)      Hepatic coma
b)      Obesity
c)       Renal failure
d)      Diabetes

Q32) In ca prostate with hemostasis which is raised
a)      ESR
b)      Alkaline phosphatase
c)      Acid phosphatase
d)      Bilrubin

Q33) Hormone dependent tumors are all except
a)      Ca prostate
b)      Ca breast
c)      Ca endometrium
d)      Ca ovary
Q34) Patient of heparin therapy should be monitored with
a)      Clotting time
b)      Bleeding time
c)      Prothrombin time
d)      Fibrinogen assay

Q35) People eating seafood diet have
a)      High prostacyclin
b)      High thromboxane A2
c)      Low thromboaxane A2
d)      Low prostacyclin

Q36) All are seen in emphysema except
a)      Decrease vital capacity
b)      Hyperinflation
c)      Ronchi
d)      Damage to alveoli

Q37) Most common precipitating factors for COPD
a)      Environment
b)      Smoking
c)       Allergen
d)      All

Q38) Which one of the following clinical features suggest alcoholism as cause of liver cirrhosis
a)      Spider angioma
b)      Ascitis
c)       Absence of ankle jerk
d)      Gynaecosmastia

Q39) Which of the following is not a feature of ketoacidosis
a)      Hyperventilation
b)      Abdominal pain
c)       Hypotension
d)      Bradycardia

Q40) A muscle biopsy is useful in the diagnosis all of the following except
a)      Forbe disease
b)      Pompe disease
c)      Von gierke disease
d)      Mac ardle disease

Q41) The most common cause of hydrocephalus in children is
a)      Posterior fossa tumors
b)      Congenital malformations
c)       Complicatiosn of meningitis
d)      Rupture of intracranial aneurysm

Q42) Bilateral facial palsy is seen in
a)      Myasthenia grevis
b)      Guillan barre
c)       Muscular dystrophy
d)      Duchenne muscular dystrophy

Q43) The phenomenon of sparing of macula is due to the collateral circulation of
a)      Middle and posterior cerebral arteries
b)      Anterior and middle cerbralarteries
c)       Anterior and posterior cerebral arteries
d)      Anterior, middle and posterior cerebral arteries

Q44) Autism is
a)      Neurodevelopmental disorder
b)      Social and language communication problem
c)       Metabolic disease
d)      Mainly due to hypothalamus damage

Q45) Hyperkinetic disorder is characterized by all axcept
a)      Impulsivity
b)      Distractibility
c)       Hyperactivity
d)      Hallucination

Q46) First sign after radiation therapy
a)      Erythema
b)      Necrosis
c)      Burns
d)      Deep ulcer

Q47) In aortic dissection the investigation of choice is
a)      ECG
b)      CT scan
c)      Aortography
d)      MRI scan

Q48) Most common muscle involoved in lower leg in polio is
a)      Anterior tibialis
b)      Posterior tibialis
c)      Extensor pollicis longus
d)      Flexor pollicis longus

Q49) In psoriatic arthropathy the characteristic joint involoved is
a)      Proximal interphalangeal joint
b)      Distal inetrphalangeal joint
c)      Metacarpophalangeal joint
d)      Wrist joint

Q50) Multiload device contains
a)      Zinc
b)      Copper
c)      Progesterone
d)      Silver

Q51) Demophraphic gap means
a)      Difference between birth and death rates
b)      Differnec between age specific birth and deatn rates
c)       Difference in sex ratio
d)      Difference in child women ratio

Q53) Commonest cause of death in ca cervixis
a)      Septicemia
b)      Haemorrhage
c)       Cahexia
d)      Renal failure

Q53) Which is the commonest ovarian tumor to undergo torsion
a)      Mucinous cystadenoma
b)      Srous cystadenoma
c)      Dermoid
d)      Brenner tumor

Q54) All are true about lepromatous leprosy except
a)      Presence of globi
b)      Subepidermal free zone
c)      Decreased cell mediated immunity
d)      Presence of granulomas epidermally

Q55) Gonococcus is
a)      Extracellular gram positive
b)      Intracytoplasmic gram positive
c)      Intracytoplasmic gram negative
d)      Intranuclear gram positive

Q56) The appropriate sign and symptoms of zinc deficiency
a)      Night blindness, keratosis of skin
b)      Glucose intolerance, peripheral neuropathy
c)       Alopecia, seborrhoeic dermatitis, neuritis
d)      Poor wound healing, impaired immunity

Q57)Tthe commonest cause of hoarseness of voice in elderly man of more than 3 months duration
a)      Acute laryngitis
b)      Ca larynx
c)      Chronic bronchitis
d)      Nodular goiter

Q58) Tracheostomy is indicated in all except
a)      Tracheal stenosis
b)      Uncomplicated bronchial asthma
c)       Bilateral vocal cord palsy
d)      Forign body in larynx

Q59) The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is
a)      Tuberculosis
b)      Ca stomach
c)      Duodenal lymphoma
d)      Peptic ulcer disease
Q60) Malignancy of testis most commonly occurs in
a)      Klinefilters disease
b)      Testicular feministaion syndrome
c)       Abdominal undescened testis
d)      Fliariasis

Q61) Which of the following miasm has the symptom- desire for cold food
a)      Psora
b)      Sycosis
c)       Syphilis
d)      Tubercular

Q62) The modus operandi of homeopathic medicine is explained in organon medicine

Q63) Dr Samuel Hahnemann has given ideas about case taking in
a)      1-70
b)      71-82
c)       83-104
d)      105-145

Q64) Action of the medicine upon prover is the _____ observation of kent
        a) 10
        b) 9
        c) 7
        d) 6

Q65) surrogates are
a)      Homoeopathic medicines
b)      Substitute medicines
c)       Allopathic medicines
d)      Antipathic medicine

Q66) Two dissimilar diseases when both are of chronic character and of equal strength meeting together in the human being will cause
a)      A new one will be repelled by the old one
b)      Old one to be suspended by the new one
c)      Complex disease
d)      Neutralization by each other

Q67) According  to stuart close, constitution of an individual develops as a result of the following
     a) interaction between hereditary and environmental factors
     b) interaction between simple substance and medicine
     c) interaction between simple substance and disease
     d) none

Q68) Acc to ______ sycosis is contagious disease which results from suppression of chronic gonorrhea
a)      Hahnemann
b)      J T kent
c)       J H allen
d)      Stuart close

Q69) By which methods Hahnemann got the idea of similia similibus curentur
      a) deduction
      b) induction
      c) generalistaion
      d) individualization

Q70) Of the below which is correct
a)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 5th edition of organon
b)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 4 th edition of organon
c)       Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 3rd edition of organon
d)      Theory of vital force and drug dynamisation was elaborated first in 2nd edition of organon

Q71) of the below which is the suitable method to obtain the pathogenitic power of the drugs
a)      Animal experiments
b)      Experiments on plants
c)       Experiments on diseased person
d)      Experiment by the doctors taking the medicine internally

Q72) how many aphorisms are present in the 4 th edition of organon of medicine
      a)  292
      b)  320
      c)  259
      d)  318

Q73) the friend of health was written by
a)      Hahnemann
b)      Kent
c)      Park
d)      Socrates

Q74) the subjects of anatomy, physiology are not only life but only result of life is said by
    a) Dunham
    b) Close
    c) Kent
    d) Hahnemann

Q75) psychotherapy is indicate din which type of the following mental diseases
a)      Mental diseases originating from corporeal diseases
b)      Mental diseases of recent origin arsing from psychogenic causes
c)       Sudden outburst of insanity
d)      Mental diseases having physical or mental causes which are difficult to be ascertained

Q76) a patient suffers from asthma, can inspire but cannot expire , has severe suffocation relieved by lying on face and protruding tongue.however the frequency and the severity of suffocative attacks are remarkably less during his visit and stay with his son at coastal city.which one of the following is the likely remedy
a)      Bromium
b)      Medorrinum
c)       Corallium rub
d)      Asr alb

Q77) glonoine is drug prepared from
a)      Glycerine trichloride
b)      Triglycerides
c)       Nitroglycerin
d)      Benzene

Q78) most difficult task in a case recording is to obtain
a)      Individualizing characteristic symptoms
b)      Common symptoms
c)       Physical symptoms
d)      Mental symptoms

Q79) the source of theridion is
a)      White Cuban spider
b)      Cuban spider
c)      Spanish spider
d)      Orange spider

Q80) the condition which can affect or modify a symptom is called
a)      Aggravation
b)      Amelioration
c)      Modality
d)      Causa occasionalis

Q81) toothache from tobacco smoking is a symptom of
a)      Tabacum
b)      Nux vomica
c)      Coffea
d)      Spigellia

Q82) vomiting of any position except lying on the right side is a characteristic feature of
a)      Ars alb
b)      Bismuth
c)      Ipecac
d)      None

Q83) a patient is suffering from tonsillitis with a very offensive smell from the mouth.he can swallow liquid food, but solid food causes choking with no pain in the throat.which one of the following is the likely remedy
a)      Phytolacca
b)      Merc sol
c)      Baptisia tinct
d)      Baryta carb

Q84)  A 26 yr old man has premature graying of hair, he remains under constant mental strain.which one of the following is likely remedy for him
    a) Calcarea fluor
    b) Calcarea phos
    c) Lycopodium
    d) Calcarea sulphuricum

Q85) A patient cannot walk with eyes closed , trembles with general debility, has paralysis with mental and abdominal symptoms, has rigidity of calves with debility, walks and stands unsteady especially when unobserved.has numbness in arms and post diptheritic paralysis.remedy suitable for this patient is 
a)      Gelsemium
b)      Causticum
c)      Chamomilla
d)      Argentums nitricum

Q86) Irresistible desire to talk in rhymes is the markes feature of
a)      Thuja
b)      Stramomium
c)      Lachesis
d)      Antim crudum

Q87) Craving for milk is found in
a)      Rhus tox and aethusa cynapium
b)      Sabadilla and natrum carb
c)       Rhustox and sabadilla
d)      Rhustox and natrum carb

Q88) Acc to william boericke, psorinum patient does not improve while using
a)      Coffee
b)      Cigarettes
c)       Tea
d)      Opium

Q89) During collapse, the body surface is cold to touch yet the patient cannot bear the covering this sia symptom of
a)      Camphor
b)      Medorrhinum
c)       Secale cor
d)      All

Q90) Which of the following drugs carves sympathy from others
a)      Ignatia
b)      Natrum mur
c)       Pulsatilla
d)      Arnica Montana

Q91) Which of the following medicine cannot tolerate tea
     a) Ars alb
     b) Natrum carb
     c) Arg nit
     d) Nux vom

Q92) Best tonic for debility after exhausting diseases-
     a) China
     b) Selenium
     c) Avena Sativa
     d) Psorinum

Q93.Painful cracks of the corners of the mouthwith cancer of the stomach-
     a) Nitric Acid
     b) Bismuth
     c) Antum Crudum
     d) Condurango

Q94.Which medicine is good for sterility due to atrophy of ovaries-
    a) Kali  brom
    b) Iodum
    c) Sepia
    d) Xanthoxylum

Q95) Vomiting of dark olive green colour during pregnancy is a feature of
a)      Carbolic acid
b)      Ipecac
c)      Sepia
d)      Symphocarpus

Q96) Complaints after eating melons and drinking impur water as per boericke
a)      Zingeber
b)      Pyrogen
c)      Dulcamara
d)      Nat sulph

Q97) Of the below which require change in diet regulations
a)      Indisposition
b)      Allopathic bungling
c)       Chronic disease
d)      Surgical disease

Q98) Which one of the following is the correct remedy for caries of fibula
a)      Acid fluor
b)      Sil
c)       Hepar sulph
d)      Calendula

Q99) Nitric acid is complementary to
a)      Ars alb
b)      Caldium
c)      Both
d)      None

Q100) who is the editor of synthesis repertory
    a)      Fredrick shroyens
    b)      George vithoukas
    c)      Hahnemann
    d)      Julian Winston

Q101)acridity and putridity of all the discharges from the mucus membrane is the keynote symptom of
a)      Kresote
b)      Lachesis
c)       Nitric acid
d)      All

Q102)Repertory of modalities was published in the year 1880 by
       a) Worcester
       b) Kent
       c) Lippe
       d) Boericke

Q103) Author of sensation as if
a)      Hahnemann
b)      H a Roberts
c)      W A Allen
d)      Boeninnghausen

Q104) Analytical repertory of hering was published in

Q105) Concordance repertories are those
a)      Written in provers language
b)      That do not have alphabetical arrangements of chapters and rubrics
c)      That do not contain rubrics
d)      Having a definite philosphoical background

Q106) In kents repertory shaving aggravates is found in th chapter
a)      Face
b)      Skin
c)      Generalities
d)      Conditions

Q107) Largest chapter in Kent's repertory
a)      Mind
b)      Extremoities
c)      Generalities
d)      Genitalia

Q108) The word rubric originated from the word
a)      Rubra
b)      Rubus
c)      Rubera
d)      Rubrika

Q109) Necrosis of bones in kenta repertory is in chapter
a)      Generalities
b)      Extremities
c)      Both
d)      None

Q110) Hiccup after alcoholic drinks in kents repertory indicates
a)      Sulphuric acid
b)      Ranunculsos bulbosus
c)       Nux vom
d)      Lyco

Q111) Mind chapter in kent repertory was prepared by
a)      Lippe
b)      Lee
c)       Kent
d)      Mithel

Q112)Repertory of cough and expectoration by lee and clarcke is published in the year

Q113) A repertory of comparative material medica is made by
a)      Hering
b)      Hempel
c)      Bryant
d)      Lippe

Q114) BTPB was written in which language
a)      Latin
b)      English
c)       Greek
d)      German

Q115) Under mind section of BTPB undue importance is given to which drug
a)      Natrum mur
b)      Pulsatilla
c)       Verbescum
d)      Veratrum album

Q116) Relationship of remedies is a chapter named by
a)      T F Allen
b)      Boenninhausen
c)      Roberts
d)      None

Q117) Doctrine of causation and time is a fundamental concept of which repertory
a)      BTPB
b)      Kent
c)      Synthetic
d)      BBCR

Q118) Who is the father of clinical repertory
   a) Bogar
   b) Jahr
   c) Allen
   d) None

Q119) Night blooming cereus is the name for
a)      Helianthus
b)      Cactus grandiflorus
c)      Calendula
d)      Chamomilla

Q120) Santonine is active principle of
a)      Belladonna
b)      Santalum album
c)      Cina
d)      Puls

Answer Key
Prepared by Dr.Anil.K & Dr.Jithesh T.K. Authors ”Crack the Entrance” 
1. C
25. B
49. B
73. A
97. A
2. B
26. D
50. B
74. A
98. B
3. A
27. C
51. A
75. B
99. C
4. A
28. C
52. D
76. B
100. A
5. B
29. D
53. A
77. C
101. A
6. A
30. A
54. D
78. A
102. A
7. D
31. C
55. C
79. D
103. B
8. X
32. C
56. D
80. C
104. A
9. D
33. D
57. B
81. D
105. A
10. B
34. C
58. B
82. D
106. A
11. A
35. C
59. D
83. C
107. B
12. B
36. C
60. C
84. C
108. D
13. C
37. B
61. C
85. D
109. A
14. D
38. A
62. C
86. D
110. B
15. D
39. D
63. C
87. C
111. B
16. D
40. C
64. B
88. A
112. B
17. A
41. B
65. B
89. D
113. D
18. C
42. B
66. C
90. C
114. D
19. B
67. A
91. D
115. D
20. A
44. B
68. B
92. C
116. B
21. B
45. D
69. B
93. D
117. D
22. D
46. A
70. A
94. A
118. D
23. D
47. B
71. D
95. A
119. B
24. D
48. A
72. A
96. A
120. C

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